Humans have
linguistic
capabilities that spoken language does not use. Assuming that
spoken language came first, and sign language was used only by the few
deaf people, those capabilities must have arisen as a byproduct,
without being selected for.
Is it possible that humans developed a sign language first, and only
later a spoken language which replaced it? This would simplify the
evolutionary path.
If spoken language came first, it required evolving multiple
facilities at once: controlling production of a variety of speech
sounds, as well as the higher-level organization of them.
However, if humans had already evolved great manual dexterity and the
ability to carry out a series movements, for other activities,
developing sign language would have required evolving only the
higher-level organization.
Spoken language has its advantages: for instance, you can talk to
people who can't currently see your hands well, or at all. If humans
started using vocalizations as substitutes for certain signs, and
supposing this gave them an advantage, they would have encountered
selection for control over a broader variety of speech sounds.